Question

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Darren

Ambiguity Fallacy

I was looking at the page on the website for ambiguity fallacy and had a question.

The Description of the fallacy is:

"When an unclear phrase with multiple definitions is used within the argument..."

Does this refer to:
(1)  using a phrase more than once but with different meanings (similar to equivocation) or

(2) using an ambiguous phrase once, but the listener might misinterpret it (due to its ambiguity).

The examples given sound more like (1) ("good understanding", "living beings" used more than once), but the "Logical Form" sounds more like (2) (Claim X is made; Y is concluded based on an ambiguous understanding of X).   

Perhaps it refers to both but this wasn't made clear.  

Version (1) seems to be a fallacy of reasoning (negligently or purposely trying to trick the listener by using a phrase in different ways), whereas (2) seems to be more like sloppiness in writing, causing the listener to misinterpret.  

If the meaning is (1) then equivocation would be pretty much the same fallacy, but with a single word used more than once rather than a phrase. (The page does say:  "Some will say single words count for the ambiguity fallacy, which is really a specific form of a fallacy known as equivocation."  This seems to imply that the ambiguity fallacy (version 1) is a specific form of equivocation, but I think what was meant is that equivocation is a specific form of the ambiguity fallacy.)

Thanks

asked on Tuesday, Jul 26, 2022 07:15:19 PM by Darren

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TrappedPrior (RotE) writes:

I consider equivocation to be a fallacy where:

  • a term has multiple definitions
  • more than 1 (usually 2) of these definitions are used in the argument
  • they are passed off as being equivalent

Example: "The poster says 'do something nice for someone'. I'm someone, so do something nice for me!"

(The first sense of 'someone' is 'a person other than yourself'. The second sense of 'someone' is 'a specific person'. Both senses are deployed in the argument, but treated as being the same, making for a misleading argument.)

The  ambiguity fallacy  does not require you to switch between multiple senses of the same word; it just means the operant terms are not defined, so it is unclear whether the premises support the conclusion.

Example: "If you support equality, then there's no reason to oppose affirmation action. Historically marginalised groups deserve representation."

(The operant is 'equality', which is not defined by the speaker. Thus, they are able to smuggle their ideological assumptions into the argument. The interlocutor or audience might have a different concept of 'equality' to the speaker. Equality for whom? Equality of what? You could also argue that 'affirmative action', which refers to a broad set of policies aimed at levelling the playing field for the disadvantaged, is also too wide to be meaningful when used in this argument.)

posted on Wednesday, Jul 27, 2022 12:37:56 PM

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Answers

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Bo Bennett, PhD
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Both equivocation and the ambiguity fallacy can be either deliberate or unintentional. The former can be a subset of the latter. For example, an equivocation is also ambiguous, but something ambiguous is not always an equivocation. However, simply using "equivocation" would be more accurate in those cases.

I don't care for the definition I used here because it implies it is always intentional.

Does this refer to:
(1)  using a phrase more than once but with different meanings (similar to equivocation) or

(2) using an ambiguous phrase once, but the listener might misinterpret it (due to its ambiguity).

Either. The error in reasoning is when the person is confident in their interpretation of the ambiguous phrase when the level of confidence is unwarranted. As far as a fallacious technique, it is when the person uses ambiguity to attempt to justify a conclusion (e.g., "George Bush II was a much stronger President than Biden is. That is a fact." - referring to how much each President can bench press while in office).

answered on Wednesday, Jul 27, 2022 07:23:43 AM by Bo Bennett, PhD

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TrappedPrior (RotE) writes:

I agree that  equivocation  is one form of the  ambiguity fallacy. 

T. Edward Damer would classify both as 'acceptability fallacies', as they both fail to meet the acceptability criterion for a sound argument (since they rely on linguistic confusion).

posted on Wednesday, Jul 27, 2022 01:43:39 PM
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Darren writes:
[To Rationalissimus of the Elenchus]

I looked at the T. Edward Damer book, which had an interesting discussion on this issue.   He divides fallacies according to 5 criteria for what constitutes a good argument, one of which is Acceptability (which is very broadly defined).   Ambiguity, as you point out, is in the Acceptability section.

Fallacies are, of course, defined differently by different sources; this is how Damer parses Ambiguity and Equivocation:

Equivocation is where a word  or phrase with 2 or more meanings is used in different ways in the premises of an argument, but appear to have the same meaning throughout.  Note that he doesn't distinguish between words and phrases; either can be Equivocation.   This is a different interpretation than what Jorge wrote below and (I believe) a different interpretation than this website, which seems to distinguish between words and phrases in attributing the Equivocation vs Ambiguity fallacy.

He talks about two different types of Ambiguity fallacies based on semantic vs syntactic ambiguity.  Semantic ambiguity is where the ambiguity is in the meaning of the word or phrase used.   An example he gives deals with driving instructions:   if the driver is told "turn right here",   the speaker might have meant turn right away (and was pointing to the left),  whereas the driver interpreted "right" to mean the direction to go.  This is not the same as Equivocation, since this isn't a case where the same word or phrase is used in different ways in the same argument, but rather, the single use of the word or phrase is ambiguous.  

The other type of ambiguity is syntactic ambiguity, which is where the word or phrase is not inherently ambiguous but becomes ambiguous because of poor use of grammar or syntax  (this is referred to as "Amphiboly").  An example he gives is:  "Fred never argues with his father when he's drunk" (does this mean--when Fred's drunk, or when his father's drunk)?   The ambiguity isn't in the meaning of the words but because it's not made clear who "he" is.

If I were doing the Taxonomy, I'd use "Equivocation" for either a word or phrase being used in more than one ways in the same argument.   "Ambiguity Fallacy" would be a catch-all for all types of fallacies (including Equivocation) where an argument can be interpreted in two or more ways because of ambiguity in the terms.   For those who want a separate name for each variation of fallacy, I'd divide these into semantic ambiguity and Amphiboly.   I think the latter, at least, deserves its own entry.

 

[ login to reply ] posted on Thursday, Jul 28, 2022 10:59:05 AM
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TrappedPrior (RotE) writes:
[To Darren]

Good points. Perhaps 'ambiguity fallacy' is a bit...um...ambiguous, too much so to be a useful entry.

It could be split into three fallacies - equivocation (switching the sense in which the same word/phrase is used, so the argument is misleading), semantic ambiguity (word/phrase itself is unclear) and syntactic ambiguity or amphiboly (word/phrase is unclear due to poor grammar).

That said, Dr Bo might not feel it's worthwhile to add separate entries for the last two types, when they could just be given as different variations on the Ambiguity Fallacy, rather than getting rid of the latter entry altogether. After all, Appeal to Emotion is also...um...ambiguous, yet it has its own entry.

(But in counter to that, so do some of the various forms of it!)

[ login to reply ] posted on Thursday, Jul 28, 2022 05:15:30 PM
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Jorge
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This is how I understand it:

The equivocation fallacy equivocates a term to make a conclusion. 

Example: 
1. People told me that I should exercise if I want to have a happy life.
2. But I'm already happy.
3. Therefore, I don't have to exercise to have a happy life.

Here, the term "happy" has two meanings. It refers to a healthy life-style in the first sentence and
it refers to a state of mind in both the second and third statements.

The ambiguity fallacy equivocates a phrase to make a conclusion.

Example:
1. People told me that I should exercise to have a good life.
2. But I already have a good life. I make a decent living.
3. Therefore, I don't have to exercise to have a good life.

Here, the phrase "have a good life" takes two meanings. It refers to a healthy life-style in the first sentence and it refers to having enough means to be comfortable on the second and third sentences.

answered on Wednesday, Jul 27, 2022 11:31:40 PM by Jorge

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Darren writes:

Thanks.

This website makes the distinction you make between single terms vs phrases in defining equivocation and ambiguity fallacy.   I was wondering if you've seen that distinction anywhere else (most sources define "equivocation" as a word or phrase.)      

posted on Friday, Jul 29, 2022 10:07:44 AM
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Jorge writes:

[To Darren]

I responded without perhaps understanding your two points. Let me try this again. Here's what you wrote:
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
(1)  using a phrase more than once but with different meanings (similar to equivocation) or

(2) using an ambiguous phrase once, but the listener might misinterpret it (due to its ambiguity).
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

I contend that equivocation and ambiguity can be used interchangeably because the idea behind their classification is equivocation, or "equal in voice" but not necessarily in meaning. 

With that said, I like classifying things. So having equivocation dissected in two fallacies is interesting. It would be like having a computer and wanting to know some of its architecture I guess. You can still use the computer but maybe knowing some of its architecture can help you program differently. Perhaps the linguist or psychologist can make a better use with the equivocation-to-ambiguity distinction. But we still know what we mean when we use them, even interchangeably: there was an error in reasoning and that happened because of equivocation.

As to your points, the first one I think is what it's meant by the strict definitions on this website. To your second point, the fallacy would be committed by the listener if the listener forms a conclusion by misinterpretation, even it was done by accident. This is because we can re-write information and courses of action in the form of an argument.

Example: 
Sarah: Pete, I'll see you at the movies.
Pete: Ok Sarah.
Pete then goes to the movies but doesn't look for Sarah and they don't meet. The next day:
Sarah: What happened? I said I'll see you there!
Pete: Yes, and you didn't look for me!

Pete used the phrase "I'll see you" to mean "I'll look for you" when in reality Sarah meant to say that they have to look for each other. An error in thinking was made and perhaps by accident. We can re-write Pete's course of action as a response to the information as follows:

1. Sarah said that she'll see me at the movies.
2. If Sarah will see me at the movies, then I don't have to look for her.
C. I don't have to look for her.

Maybe my example sounds outdated because of smartphones and stuff but suppose that Pete didn't pay attention to his phone because he was in the arcades.

[ login to reply ] posted on Friday, Jul 29, 2022 07:30:01 PM
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rx7man writes:

It could also be that either one of them SAW the other at the movies, but didn't approach or acknowledge each other

posted on Saturday, Jul 30, 2022 04:51:50 PM
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Jorge writes:
[To rx7man]

It could be. But suppose that it didn't happened that way. Suppose that Pete truly believed that Sarah was gonna look for him and he just didn't worry about that. And suppose that Sarah really did look for him but couldn't find him. Then they missed each other because Pete's misunderstanding. This ambiguity fallacy can still be committed by Pete even if Sarah ends up finding Pete or even if Pete bumps into Sarah. Pete's reasoning was still faulty. 

[ login to reply ] posted on Sunday, Jul 31, 2022 07:29:35 PM