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Unless some logic is applied to arrive at that conclusion, you couldn't classify it as a fallacy. On to the actual claim, though. Rights, in this respect, can be viewed in two different ways. Rights can be viewed as inherent, something that a person or entity should have regardless of condition. Or they can be conditional, granted by a powerful entity like a government, conditioned on the entity being within their jurisdiction. Going backwards, starting with the conditional one, there are international coalitions which have set rules for armed conflict, and Israel does maintain some rights to self defense under those laws. However, international law doesn't recognize a right for a nation to exist in perpetuity. Countries have their borders changed or cease to exist fairly frequently through a lot of different means, and international law enforcement doesn't automatically work to undo these changes. The remaining option is that Israel has an inherent moral right to exist. The answer to this is subjective, you could make a case either way. But, the people who say Israel had the right to exist probably did not say the same about Zaire or East Germany with equal enthusiasm. Israel certainly does enjoy some special treatment due to its alliance with Western military forces and its importance to the Abrahamic religions. |
answered on Wednesday, Dec 13, 2023 02:45:36 PM by Mr. Wednesday | |
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Alleged Certainty (also known as assuming the conclusion) https://www.logicallyfallacious.com/logicalfallacies/Alleged-Certainty The statement "Israel has the right to exist." is an assertion that is made without defining what rights are. Accepting the statement as valid relies on drawing a conclusion without presenting premises about what rights are and under what circumstances nations have the right to exist. |
answered on Thursday, Dec 14, 2023 07:35:36 PM by Alan Wells | |
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