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Alex

Question about modus tollens

Hi,

 

I would like to know if this form of argument is valid or not:

P1) If A is not true, then B is not true

P2) B is true

C1) A is true

 

Thanks!

asked on Monday, Nov 29, 2021 09:33:53 AM by Alex

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Answers

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Arlo
2

The argument is valid.  It is an example of the general truth statement that if a statement itself is true, so is its contrapositive.

However, it's made a bit more complex than usual to follow because P1 is stated in the negative.  Just like double negatives in normal conversation can help confuse the discussion, considering the contrapositive of a negative statement takes a bit of mental juggling.

The usual form used to describe statements and contra positives is something like:

          If P, then Q.  ~Q, therefore ~P

The above statement looks more like:

          If ~A, then ~B.  ~ ~ B (or just B), therefore ~ ~ A (or just A)

The contrapositive form is still there.  It just gets a bit messy saying things like "it is true that A is not true".

An equivalent rephrasing of the argument could be (and it might be easier to follow):

If A is false, then B is false

B is true.

Therefore, A is true

answered on Tuesday, Nov 30, 2021 11:09:16 AM by Arlo

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Kaiden
1

Hi, Alex!


      The argument can be quickly evaluated by using a method called indirect proof (or reductio ad absurdism). Now, an argument is valid just in case its formal structure is such that it is impossible for the premises to be true and the conclusion false. An indirect proof works by deriving a contradiction (an impossibility) from the assumption that the premises are true and the conclusion false.


      To begin the indirect proof, assume the two premises of your argument. 


      1. If not A, then Not B.
      2. B


      Now, add a third line that states the negation of the argument’s conclusion.


          3. Not A 


      Having assumed the conclusion of the argument is false, while assuming the premises in the background, the goal now is to derive a contradiction. I will derive a contradiction with just two more steps that logically follow from the previous steps. Step 4 is as follows. 


         4. Not B (1, 3 MP)


      How did I reach step 4? I used the statements in steps 1 and 3 to make a Modus Ponens inference, as noted in the parentheses. Step 5, the final step, is as follows. 


         5. B and Not B (2, 4 CONJ)


      How did I reach step 5? I took the statements in steps 2 and 4 and conjuncted them. In sum, by assuming the premises of the argument (in steps 1 and 2), and then further assuming the negation of the argument’s conclusion (in step 3), I derived a contradiction. Of course, a contradiction is not possibly true. In other words, it is not possible that the premises of your argument are true and the conclusion false. For assuming that the premises are true and the conclusion false leads to a contradiction, as I just proved. Therefore, an argument which has steps 1-2 as premises, and the negation of step 3 as the conclusion, is valid. 


      This is an informal exhibition of the reductio ad absurdum method of proof, of course. But I hope it helps. It is invaluable to invest in learning methods for assessing argument's for validity. Indirect proof is one method, but you can also use a truth-table, a tableau, or natural deduction. Let me recommend a helpful textbook for learning truth-tables and natural deduction, called “Forall x: Calgary remix. An Introduction to Formal Logic” by P.D. Magnus and Tim Button. 


Thank you, Alex


From, Kaiden

answered on Friday, Dec 03, 2021 07:12:51 PM by Kaiden

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Dr. Richard
1

The way I see it, the fact B is true does not imply, infer, suggest, mandate or dictate that A is true. It is sophistry and a non sequitur.

answered on Tuesday, Nov 30, 2021 10:30:52 AM by Dr. Richard

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Bo Bennett, PhD writes:

Can you think of an example where the premises are true but the conclusion is false? I realize that not thinking of an example doesn't make it false, but if you can come up with an example that works, that would show definitively that the argument structure is invalid.

posted on Tuesday, Nov 30, 2021 11:00:22 AM
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Dr. Richard writes:
[To Bo Bennett, PhD]

You ask: Can you think of an example where the premises are true but the conclusion is false? 

The short answer is no. The definition of an argument being logically valid is: if the premises are true, the conclusion must be true.

This is why one must always check one's premises. 

[ login to reply ] posted on Tuesday, Nov 30, 2021 01:09:49 PM
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Bo Bennett, PhD writes:
[To Dr. Richard]

Perhaps I misunderstood you answer. Do you agree that the argument is valid? Of course, it can only be sound if the premises are true.

Thanks

[ login to reply ] posted on Tuesday, Nov 30, 2021 02:04:26 PM
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Dr. Richard writes:
[To Bo Bennett, PhD]

Most likely, my answer was not clear. Yes, I agree the structure is valid. 

[ login to reply ] posted on Tuesday, Nov 30, 2021 02:44:12 PM
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Bo Bennett, PhD
1

I believe that C1 should properly be. Therefore, A is possibly true." This is because the truth or falsity of B could as well be caused by something other than A. 

answered on Monday, Nov 29, 2021 03:32:59 PM by Bo Bennett, PhD

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Alex writes:

So that means if one concludes with certainty (e.g saying “Therefore, A is  true”) then they are committing a formal fallacy right?

posted on Monday, Nov 29, 2021 03:52:29 PM
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Bo Bennett, PhD writes:

This is where I was going, but concluded that C must be true. Here is my thinking: let's say that B is caused by something else than A. If that were the case, we could not say that "If not B, then not A." For example, if I say, "If I am not old, then I am not gray." - this is not true.

If we said, "If A then B. A. Therefore, B" this is a valid structure. Of course, if we use values for A and B that make the premise false, it is no longer sound... but it remains a valid form.

Again, I am open to correction here.

posted on Monday, Nov 29, 2021 03:56:53 PM
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Bo Bennett, PhD
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This appears valid (I say with 86.2% confidence).

answered on Monday, Nov 29, 2021 12:59:16 PM by Bo Bennett, PhD

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Alex writes:

I’m not sure about that tbh

I asked because I saw this on RationalWiki and wanted to know if it’s true or not:

 

”1. If the Bible were not true, logic would not be meaningful.
2. Logic is meaningful.
3. Therefore, the Bible is true.”
—Jason Lisle, showing he doesn't know his tollens from his inverted ponens.

 

The example here by Jason Lisle appears to me not sound

 

posted on Monday, Nov 29, 2021 01:12:16 PM
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Bo Bennett, PhD writes:
[To Alex]

It is not sound because premise one is not true.

[ login to reply ] posted on Monday, Nov 29, 2021 01:49:21 PM
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Alex writes:
[To Bo Bennett, PhD]

I see. Perhaps I need to get better at differentiating between soundness and validity.

[ login to reply ] posted on Monday, Nov 29, 2021 03:56:34 PM