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Yes, they are subjective, and yes, you can run the numbers and still use evidence. People who share many cultural values tend to have similar values... this is why societies typically work. For example, just about everyone would value lower crime rate, higher GDP, life satisfaction, etc. But people also value $200 extra spending per year. One needs to make a strong case that goes beyond facts and data and also appeals to emotion as to why their argument is better. Facts and data help, but one must be reminded of Aristotle's rhetorical triangle (https://www.lsu.edu/hss/english/files/university_writing_files/item35402.pdf). |
answered on Thursday, Dec 23, 2021 10:16:24 AM by Bo Bennett, PhD | |
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Hi, Alexander!
Defining “value judgement” in a way that includes the notion of subjectively is question begging because whether or not value judgements as such are subjective is a matter of controversy, as a survey of stances on the issue in philosophy and religion makes obvious. Aristoteleans, for instance, argue that some value judgements are objective. Moral realists maintain that there are objective moral values and, therefore, maintain that some value judgements (especially, ones about moral values) are objective. Sometimes, religious adherents maintain that value judgements coming from their religious beliefs are objective. My position is that some value judgements are not subjective. As is common among philosophers, my stance on the issue is influenced by my philosophy of nature. An Aristotelean philosophy of nature, which I think is correct, includes intrinsic teleology and universal essences. Due to this, an Aristotelean philosophy of nature implies an objective, factual standard of goodness, badness, better and worse. Morality is a special case of the more general concept of goodness, and so there are objective moral values, too, on my view. I won’t argue for all of this now. (Which is not a total disadvantage because not everyone else here defended their contrary position with an argument.) The takeaway from me is that there are considerations on all sides of the debate and a question-begging definition does not settle the matter. Also, that my answer is no.
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answered on Monday, Dec 27, 2021 04:20:40 PM by Kaiden | |
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Yes, they are subjective. Studying cognitive biases can help you to better understand values, as values are rooted in biases. For example, "a lower crime rate, more productive, higher GDP growth, higher life satisfaction, better problem solving skills" are all biases or preferences, as well as not wanting to pay an extra $200 a year. |
answered on Friday, Dec 24, 2021 10:11:11 AM by Jason Mathias | |
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