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Appeal to Nature vs. Naturalistic FallacyThe line between the Appeal to Nature Fallacy and Naturalistic Fallacy seem very thin. The Logically Fallacious site says they are different, but the site really doesn't explain how other than having to compare the forms ourselves (see: www.logicallyfallacious.c. . . The forms do look different, but are they?
On the logically fallacious site the forms are: Appeal to Nature : X is natural. Y is not natural. Therefore, X is better than Y. Naturalistic Fallacy: X is true according to nature. Therefore, X is morally right. I fail to see how either one can't be modified to the other, or that they are not in fact the same. Revised, or perhaps reduced incorrectly (as I see it), to show my (potential) vision problem: Appeal to Nature : X is natural. Therefore, X is good. Naturalistic Fallacy: X is nature. Therefore, X is moral. I fail to see the difference between nature and natural, or I see them as outside of value judgments. I do recognize that both moral and good can be subjective. This said, both seem to point to the is/ought problem, which to some is not a problem, but I'm not going there... Can someone clarify in a reduced form, if possible, as to how/why the two "forms" aren't "basically" the same. Thanks |
asked on Thursday, Mar 19, 2015 09:47:38 AM by Emick | |
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