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As you start to list properties that the animal lacks to justify eating them, you begin to realize that some humans also lack those properties, yet we don’t eat those humans. Is this logical proof that killing and eating animals for food is immoral? Don’t put away your steak knife just yet.
In Eat Meat… Or Don’t, we examine the moral arguments for and against eating meat with both philosophical and scientific rigor. This book is not about pushing some ideological agenda; it’s ultimately a book about critical thinking.
* This is for the author's bookstore only. Applies to autographed hardcover, audiobook, and ebook.
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Seems like an opinion, though I'd like to ask what the person means by 'more emotional' - do women simply express more emotion, or experience more? There's also a misunderstanding on your part - someone saying men aren't sufficiently sensitive isn't suggesting they have no feelings at all.
"No one abroad can speak proper English" - I'm guessing they mean, no foreigners can speak English very well. This, taken literally, is amazing familiarity (though it is probably a hasty generalization extrapolated from prejudice, or the experience of a non-native speaker struggling with their English).
There is more amazing familiarity at work as the person asserts all racists vote Republican. "Democrats can't be racist" is just a false claim (where's the mechanism that stops them from being so?)
You can question the claim that Middle Eastern countries 'facilitate terrorism'. More pressingly, though, I'm struggling to see the underlying logic - first we're talking about Middle Eastern countries, then we talk about Western individuals. So is the claim about countries promoting terror, or individuals from those countries engaging in it?
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answered on Wednesday, May 25, 2022 09:08:03 AM by TrappedPrior (RotE) | |
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I would be grateful to anyone who can review my thinking on this. “Women (C) are more emotional people (A), men (B) are just not sensitive enough” Using your initial formulation, it would look like this, Some more emotional people [A] are men [B] There are problems with this in that it uses two type "I" ( some A) logical forms to infer a type "A" logical form ( all A). I don't think it is logically valid to move from some to all in that way (I'm happy to be corrected on that if someone knows different). The sentence above, however, seems to formulate as, Some women [C] are more emotional people [A] You move from one premise to a conclusion - you appear to be missing a minor premise. Could it be, Some women [C] are more emotional than some men [A] Some C are A This is also logically invalid. Even if we accept the implicit assumption that more emotional than some men [A] is better than not more emotional than some men [not-A], it introduces a fourth term ( all men - as opposed to some men ). This means it is not a categorical syllogism and therefore is a non sequiter. |
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answered on Saturday, Jun 11, 2022 07:34:12 AM by Trevor Folley | ||||
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