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Is this a Definist and/or False dichotomy Fallacy?I was looking at an academic post on the definition of Atheism by plato.stanford.edu site. Now, I am not suggesting that the source itself is defining Atheism in this way; it could just be the signifying how it is often defined by certain others. However, an excerpt from the post that I wonder about being fallacious is as follows:
1. Definitions of “Atheism” |
asked on Thursday, Oct 31, 2019 06:08:30 PM by Jack | |
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